Thursday, May 05, 2005

Are Liberals in Contempt of the Constitution?

I would like to know what happens when a government doesn't comply with a clause in their own Constitution?

The Constitution Act, 1867 under the part 'Money Votes; Royal Assent'subtitled 'Appropriaton and Tax Bills's under s. 53 states: "Bills for appropriating any Part of the Public Revenue, or for imposing any Tax or Impost, shall originate in the House of Commons."

Recommendation of Money Votes states: s. 54 "It shall not be lawful for the House of Commons to adopt or pass any Vote, Resolution, Address, or Bill for the Appropriation of any Part of the Public Revenue, or of any Tax or Impost, to any Purpose that has not been first recommended to that House by Message of the Governor General in the Session in which such Vote, Resolution, Address, or Bill is proposed."

Seems to me, that the Liberals already violated this clause of the Constitution from the evidence that has been made public from AdScam. If I didn't know any better, and I don't because I'm not a lawyer, but I would venture to suggest that may mean the government is in contempt.

If a lawyer is willing to answer, I'd love to get your comments.

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